UPSC polity PYQ 2025

16.

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Correct Answer:

A. Only one

Explanation;

Row I — Incorrect ❌

The Directorate of Enforcement (ED):

Enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 ✅

But it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance,

NOT under Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs.

Hence, the ministry is wrongly matched.

Row II — Correct ✅

The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI):

Enforces the Customs Act, 1962 and several allied laws.

Functions under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC),

which is part of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

Both function and administrative control are correctly matched.

Row III — Incorrect ❌

The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management (DGSM):

Primarily deals with IT systems, automation, and digital infrastructure for Customs, GST, and Central Excise.

Big data analytics, risk profiling, and intelligence inputs are the functions of:

Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM) (set up in 2018),

NOT of DGSM.

Although both DGSM and DGARM function under CBIC / Department of Revenue,

the function mentioned in the row belongs to DGARM, not DGSM.

Hence, functional mismatch makes this row incorrect.

15.

Consider the following statements :

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer:

(a) I only

Explanation:

Statement I — Correct ✅

The Constitution explicitly provides discretionary powers to the Governor in certain situations.

Examples include:

Article 163: Where the Governor is required to act in discretion.

Sixth Schedule and Fifth Schedule areas.

Reservation of Bills for the President under Article 200 (discretionary in nature).

Hence, the Constitution does recognize discretionary spheres of the Governor.

Statement II — Incorrect ❌

Under Article 200, a Bill passed by a State Legislature can be reserved for the President’s consideration only by the Governor.

The President cannot suo motu reserve a State Bill.

Without the Governor forwarding the Bill, the President has no constitutional role.

14.

Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India — Stated under

I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy

II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties

III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer:

(c) All the three

Explanation:

Pair I — Correct ✅

Article 50 of the Constitution (Directive Principles of State Policy) provides for separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Pair II — Correct ✅

Article 51A(f) under Fundamental Duties mandates citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Pair III — Correct ✅

Article 24 under Fundamental Rights prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or other hazardous employment.

👉 Hence, all three pairs are correctly matched.

13.

Consider the following statements :

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule

I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration

II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer (Rechecked based strictly on the image):

(d) Neither I nor II

Explanation (Corrected & Constitutionally precise):

Statement I — Incorrect ❌

Paragraph 2 of the Fifth Schedule clearly states that the executive power of the State extends to Scheduled Areas.

Although the Governor has special powers (e.g., modification of laws under Paragraph 5 and establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council under Paragraph 4), these do not nullify or transfer the State’s executive authority.

Even under PESA (Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act), local bodies are empowered, but total administration does not shift away from the State.

Statement II — Incorrect ❌

Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule only allows the Union Government to issue directions to the State regarding Scheduled Areas.

It does NOT permit the Union to take over total administration of such areas.

A complete takeover of administration can occur only under Article 356 (President’s Rule), which is a separate constitutional mechanism, not a provision of the Fifth Schedule.

👉 Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

12.

With reference to India, consider the following pairs :

Organization — Union Ministry

I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry

II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries

III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched :

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer:

(d) None

Explanation:

Pair I — Incorrect ❌

The National Automotive Board (NAB) functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Pair II — Incorrect ❌

The Coir Board comes under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not under the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

“COIR = Coconut Fibre”

→ Coconut husk gives Coir 🥥

Source:

Coir is extracted from the fibrous husk of coconut.

Nature of fibre:

Coarse

Strong

Highly durable

Resistant to saltwater

Main uses:

Ropes and cords

Mats and carpets

Brushes

Mattresses

Geo-textiles (soil erosion control)

Economic relevance (India):

India is one of the largest producers of coir.

Important cottage and MSME-based industry, especially in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.

Pair III — Incorrect ❌

The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not under the Ministry of MSME.

👉 Hence, none of the pairs are correctly matched.

11.

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :

I. List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule

II. Extent of the executive power of a State

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer:

(a) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I — Correct ✅

Any amendment relating to the Seventh Schedule (Union List, State List, Concurrent List) requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures, as per Article 368(2).

Statement II — Correct ✅

The extent of the executive power of a State (Articles 162, 73) falls under provisions that affect:

Distribution of executive powers between Union and States,

hence State ratification is mandatory under Article 368(2).

Statement III — Incorrect ❌

Conditions of the Governor’s office (salary, allowances, privileges, etc.) do not require State ratification.

These can be amended by Parliament alone using the special majority procedure, without ratification by States.

👉 Therefore, only I and II require ratification by State Legislatures.

👉 Rule to remember:

If an amendment reshapes federal power-sharing, States must ratify.

If it is only an office-holder’s condition, States’ ratification not needed

10.

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer:

(d) I, II and III

Explanation:

This question is an example of why the Supreme Court cases in news are extremely important for UPSC examination.

Statement I — Correct ✅

Under Article 361(1), the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office.

Statement II — Correct ✅

As per Article 361(2), no criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against the Governor during the term of office.

Statement III — Correct ✅

Under Article 194(2), Members of a State Legislature enjoy freedom of speech in the House and are not liable to any court proceedings for anything said or any vote given therein.

why this question asked?

In July 2024, the Supreme Court agreed to examine the scope and limits of Article 361, which provides immunity to Governors from criminal proceedings during their term.

The issue arose from allegations of molestation against the Governor of West Bengal, raising questions on:

Whether immunity is absolute or conditional

How constitutional immunity balances with access to justice

Key UPSC Angle (Article 361):

Governor is not answerable to any court for official acts

No criminal proceedings during term

But scope and limits are judicially examinable.

A seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that:

A legislator does NOT enjoy immunity under Articles 105(2) and 194(2) in cases of bribery

Legislative privilege protects speech and vote, not corrupt acts.

Simple Examples (Very Important for Clarity)

✅ Example 1: Protected under Article 194

An MLA criticises the government harshly inside the Assembly.

A defamation case is filed in court.

👉 Not allowed.

Speech inside the House is protected.

❌ Example 2: NOT protected (No immunity)

An MLA accepts money to vote in a particular way.

Even if he later votes inside the House.

👉 Bribery is a crime.

Article 194 will not protect him.

Otherwise, it would lead to impunity, which the Constitution does not permit.

❌ Example 3: Outside the House

An MLA makes a defamatory speech at a public rally.

👉 No protection.

Article 194 applies only inside the Legislature.

9.

With reference to India, consider the following :

I. The Inter-State Council

II. The National Security Council

III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above are established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer:

(a) Only one

Explanation:

I. The Inter-State Council — Correct ✅

Established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India.

It is a constitutional body (though constituted by Presidential order).

II. The National Security Council — Incorrect ❌

It is not mentioned in the Constitution.

It is an executive body, set up by the Government of India in 1998.

III. Zonal Councils — Incorrect ❌

They are not constitutional bodies.

Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (statutory basis).

8

Consider the following pairs:

State — Description

I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.

II. Nagaland: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.

III. Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Correct Answer

(b) Only two

Explanation:

Pair I — Correct ✅

Itanagar is named after Ita Fort (“Ita” = brick).

Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling.

Pair II — Incorrect ❌

Nagaland was NOT created by a Constitutional Amendment Act.

It was created by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962 (a Parliamentary law under Article 3).

The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962 only inserted Article 371A (special provisions), not state creation.

Therefore, the description is incorrect.

Pair III — Correct ✅

Tripura was initially a Part ‘C’ State.

Became a Union Territory in 1956.

Attained full Statehood in 1972 via the North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

Memory Trick:

“Nagaland = Act, not Amendment”

→ State creation by Parliamentary Act, Amendment only gave special provisions (Article 371A).

7.

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer:

(c) I and III only

Explanation:

Statement I — Correct ✅

An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

Therefore, it can amend or repeal any Central Act, subject to constitutional limits.

Statement II — Incorrect ❌

An Ordinance cannot abridge or take away Fundamental Rights.

Like a law made by Parliament, an Ordinance is subject to judicial review and Article 13.

Any Ordinance violating Fundamental Rights is void.

Statement III — Correct ✅

An Ordinance can have retrospective (backdated) effect, unless it violates constitutional provisions (such as Fundamental Rights).

Memory Trick:

“Ordinance = Act ”

Can amend laws ✅

Can be retrospective ✅

Cannot violate Fundamental Rights ❌

6.

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

Statement II:

In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer:

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I — Incorrect ❌

Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act):

State Governments have the power to make rules for the grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals.

This includes regulation of extraction, leases, licences, and concessions within their territories.

Hence, it is wrong to say that States have no power.

Statement II — Correct ✅

As per Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957:

The Central Government has the authority to notify and define what constitutes “minor minerals”.

Once notified by the Centre, regulatory powers vest with the States.

Memory Trick:

“Centre defines, States regulate”

→ Centre notifies minor minerals, States make rules and grant concessions.

5.

Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer:

(d) Neither I nor II

Explanation:

Statement I — Incorrect ❌

Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law):

Questions of disqualification of a Member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) are decided by the Speaker of the House,

Not by the President, and

Not on the advice of the Council of Union Ministers.

Hence, the statement is constitutionally incorrect.

Statement II — Incorrect ❌

The term ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, particularly in the Tenth Schedule (e.g., Paragraphs 1, 2, etc.).

Therefore, it is wrong to say that the Constitution does not mention the term.

4.

Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party.

III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer:

(c) I and III only

Explanation:

Statement I — Correct ✅

As per Article 94 of the Constitution, on dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted House.

Statement II — Incorrect ❌

The Constitution of India does not require a Member elected as Speaker to resign from his/her political party.

(The Speaker is expected to act impartially, but party resignation is not a constitutional provision.)

Statement III — Correct ✅

Under Article 94(c):

The Speaker can be removed by a resolution of the House of the People,

Passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, and

Such resolution requires at least 14 days’ prior notice.

3.

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer:

(a) I only

Explanation:

It was an expected question because 

Former U.S. President Joe Biden recently made history by becoming the first American president to pardon his own son, sparking widespread debate over the use of presidential clemency powers.

Statement I — Correct ✅

The pardoning power of the President under Article 72 of the Constitution is subject to limited judicial review.

Courts can examine the exercise of this power on grounds such as:

Mala fide intention

Arbitrariness

Non-application of mind

Statement II — Incorrect ❌

The President cannot exercise the pardoning power independently.

As per Article 74, the President must act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (Central Government).

1️⃣ Meaning of Limited Judicial Review (in President’s pardoning power)

Courts do NOT reassess:

Guilt or innocence

Severity of punishment

Mercy deserved or not

Courts ONLY check:

Whether constitutional limits were respected

Whether the decision-making process was lawful

👉 In short: Process is reviewed, not the decision itself.

2️⃣ Meaning of Malafide Intention

Decision taken with:

Bad faith

Personal bias

Political vendetta

Extraneous considerations

Example (conceptual):

Granting or rejecting pardon to favour or harm someone, not based on justice or mercy.

👉 Intent is dishonest or ulterior.

3️⃣ Meaning of Arbitrariness

Decision is:

Irrational

Discriminatory

Without reasonable justification

No logical link between:

Facts of the case, and

Final decision

👉 Unequals treated equally or equals treated unequally without reason.

4️⃣ Meaning of Non-Application of Mind

Authority:

Did not consider relevant facts

Ignored material on record

Acted mechanically

Example (conceptual):

Rejecting mercy petition without reading case details or reasons placed before it.

👉 Decision taken without proper thinking or examination.

2.

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.

II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.

III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only

(b) II and III

(c) I and IV

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Correct Answer:

(a) III only

Explanation:

Statement I — Incorrect ❌

Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, Lokpal’s jurisdiction extends to all public servants of India, including those posted outside India.

Statement II — Incorrect ❌

While it is correct that the Chairperson or Members cannot be Members of Parliament or State/Union Territory Legislatures, it is incorrect to say that only the Chief Justice of India can be the Chairperson.

The Chairperson can be a former Chief Justice of India, a Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person.

Statement III — Correct ✅

The Act clearly provides that the Chairperson or a Member must be at least 45 years of age on the date of assuming office.

Statement IV — Incorrect ❌

Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister, subject to specific safeguards and conditions laid down in the Act.

Section 14(1)(a) provides specific safeguards and exclusions:

No inquiry into matters related to:

International relations

National security (external and internal)

Public order

Atomic energy

Space

Any inquiry against the Prime Minister must:

Be conducted in camera, and

Receive approval of the full bench of the Lokpal, with at least two-thirds of the Members consenting.

1.

Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer:

(d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I — Incorrect ❌

Panchayats at the intermediate level do not exist in all States.

As per Article 243B of the Constitution, States with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs may choose not to constitute intermediate-level Panchayats.

Statement II — Incorrect ❌

The minimum age to be a member of a Panchayat is 21 years, not 30 years.

This is provided under Article 243F of the Constitution.

Statement III — Incorrect ❌

The State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister.

Further, it reviews the financial position of Panchayats at all levels, not only the intermediate level, as per Article 243I.

Memory Trick:

“243 = B–F–I”

243B → Intermediate Panchayat not compulsory

243F → Age = 21, not 30

243I → Finance Commission by Governor, for all Panchayats