UPSC Economics PYQ prelims 2025
15.
Consider the following activities :
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Correct Answer:
(b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement I – Production of crude oil
❌ Not regulated by PNGRB.
Exploration and production of crude oil are governed by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas through licensing policies , not by PNGRB.
Statement II – Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
✅ Regulated by PNGRB.
PNGRB regulates refining, storage, transportation, distribution, and marketing of petroleum products.
Statement III – Marketing and sale of petroleum products
✅ Regulated by PNGRB.
PNGRB oversees marketing and sale of petroleum products to ensure fair competition and consumer protection.
Statement IV – Production of natural gas
❌ Not regulated by PNGRB.
Exploration and production of natural gas fall outside PNGRB’s regulatory jurisdiction.
👉 Therefore, only Statements II and III are correct.
Memory Trick 🧠
“PNGRB = Pipes, Pumps, and Petrol – not Production.”
(Production of oil/gas is outside PNGRB’s control.)
14.
Consider the following countries :
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five
Correct Answer:
(b) Only three
Explanation:
United Arab Emirates – ✔️ UPI is accepted for merchant payments through partnerships with local payment networks.
France – ✔️ UPI accepted at select merchant locations through collaboration with payment service providers.
Germany – ❌ UPI is not enabled for merchant payments.
Singapore – ✔️ UPI is linked with PayNow, allowing merchant payments.
Bangladesh – ❌ UPI is not operational for merchant payments.
So, only three countries (UAE, France, Singapore) allow international merchant payments via UPI.
13.
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in the case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days, whereas this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) III only
Correct Answer: (a) I only
Explanation
Statement I – Correct ✅
RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) processes transactions in real time, meaning money is transferred instantly and individually.
NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) processes transactions in batches, so there can be a time gap.
Statement II – Incorrect ❌
As per RBI guidelines, no charges are levied on inward transactions for both RTGS and NEFT. Banks may charge for outward transactions only.
Statement III – Incorrect ❌
Since December 2020, both RTGS and NEFT operate 24×7, including holidays. Hence, RTGS is not restricted to certain hours anymore.
Memory Trick 🧠
👉 “RTGS = Real-Time, Real-Speed”
👉 NEFT = Next Batch, Not Instant
So remember:
RTGS = instant
NEFT = batch-based
Both work 24×7, and no inward charges.
Meaning of Inward Transaction
An inward transaction refers to money that you receive into your bank account from another person or institution.
In simple words:
👉 Money coming into your account = Inward transaction
Examples:
Someone sends you ₹5,000 through UPI / NEFT / RTGS → Inward transaction
Salary credited to your account → Inward transaction
Refund credited by a company → Inward transaction
Key Point:
Inward = Incoming money
Outward = Money you send
In Banking Context:
Banks do not charge customers for inward transactions (as per RBI guidelines), whether it is NEFT, RTGS, or IMPS.
Memory Trick 🧠
IN = INCOME → Inward = Money Comes IN
Expected Questions
12.
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
✅ Correct Answer:
(c) I and III only
It was an easy question because of the statement to and the options.
📘 Explanation
Statement I – Correct ✅
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) provides loans and guarantees mainly to middle-income and credit-worthy low-income countries.
Statement II – Incorrect ❌
The IBRD does not work alone.
It is part of the World Bank Group, which includes:
IBRD – International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
IDA – International Development Association
IFC – International Finance Corporation
MIGA – Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
ICSID – International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
Hence, it does not work single-handedly.
Statement III – Correct ✅
IBRD was established in 1944 (Bretton Woods Conference) with the primary aim of rebuilding Europe after World War II, and later expanded its role to development financing.
🧠 Memory Trick
👉 “IBRD = Borrow , Rebuild, Develop
Rebuild → Post-World War II Europe
Borrow → Loans to middle-income countries
Develop → Long-term development support
Expected questions
🌍 Bretton Woods Conference (July 1944)
Held in New Hampshire, USA, this conference brought together 44 Allied nations to design a stable post-World War II economic order and avoid another Great Depression.
Note - The Great Depression (1929–1939) was the most severe global economic downturn in modern history. It began in the United States and rapidly spread worldwide, leading to a decade of acute poverty, mass unemployment, and radical political shifts.
🔵 1️⃣ Creation of the “Bretton Woods Twins”
The conference created two major global financial institutions:
🏦 International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Purpose:
Maintain global macroeconomic stability
Oversee exchange rate stability
Provide short-term financial assistance during Balance of Payments (BoP) crises
🌎 International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Core arm of the World Bank Group
Initially: Rebuild war-torn Europe and Asia
Now: Focuses on poverty reduction and development finance
These two institutions are called the Bretton Woods Twins.
🔴 2️⃣ Fixed Exchange Rate System (Adjustably Pegged System)
The system had two pillars:
💵 Dollar–Gold Link
US Dollar pegged to gold at $35 per ounce
Only the US guaranteed gold convertibility
🌍 Currency Pegging
Other countries pegged their currencies to the US Dollar
Allowed 1% fluctuation band
Devaluation allowed only in case of “fundamental disequilibrium” with IMF approval
This system lasted until 1971.
11.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to 2025–26 for incentivising States to improve educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with the States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be provided as performance-based incentives for States to carry out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced the criterion of tax effort to reward better fiscal performance of States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer - C
Easy question because of options.
Statement I – Correct
The 15th Finance Commission recommended ₹4,800 crore (₹1,200 crore per year) as sector-specific grants for education to improve learning outcomes.
❌ Statement II – Incorrect
The Commission recommended 41% devolution, not 45%.
The earlier 42% was under the 14th Finance Commission.
✔ Statement III – Correct
₹45,000 crore was allocated as performance-linked grants for agricultural reforms, encouraging states to reform agriculture marketing and infrastructure.
✔ Statement IV – Correct
The 15th Finance Commission reintroduced the “tax effort” criterion, rewarding states that mobilize more own-tax revenue.
Expected question
10.
A country’s fiscal deficit is ₹50,000 crore.
It is receiving ₹10,000 crore as non-debt creating capital receipts.
The interest payments of the government are ₹1,500 crore.
What is the gross primary deficit?
Options:
(a) ₹48,500 crore
(b) ₹51,500 crore
(c) ₹58,500 crore
(d) None of the above
✅ Correct Answer:
(a) ₹48,500 crore
Explanation (Step-by-Step)
📌 Key Formula to Remember
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
👉 Given:
• Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crore
• Interest Payments = ₹1,500 crore
So,
Primary Deficit = 50,000 − 1,500 = ₹48,500 crore
✔️ Non-debt capital receipts are already included while calculating fiscal deficit, so they are not subtracted again.
Expected Question
A fiscal deficit occurs when a government's total expenditure exceeds its total revenue (excluding borrowings) in a financial year, signaling the need for additional borrowing to cover the gap.
Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts )
Government assets are resources owned by the state that provide future economic or social benefits (infrastructure, natural resources), while liabilities are obligations arising from past transactions requiring future outflows (debt, pensions).
Revenue receipts are recurring, day-to-day income for governments or businesses that do not create liabilities or reduce assets. For governments, these include tax revenue (e.g., GST, income tax) and non-tax revenue (e.g., dividends, interest, fees).
Non-debt capital receipts are government funds that reduce assets or increase liabilities without creating future repayment obligations, such as disinvestment proceeds, loan recoveries, and asset sales.
Memory Trick 🧠
👉 “Primary = Fiscal minus Interest”
Just remember:
P = F − I
9.
Suppose the revenue expenditure is Rs. 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are Rs. 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of Rs. 10,000 crores and interest payments of Rs. 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is Rs. 20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is Rs. 10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is Rs. 4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Correct Answer:
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
Statement I:
Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts
= 80,000 − 60,000 = 20,000 crore
✅ Correct
Statement II:
Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)
Given borrowings = ₹10,000 crore
So, Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crore
✅ Correct
Statement III:
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
= 10,000 − 6,000 = ₹4,000 crore
✅ Correct
All three statements are correct.
Memory Trick 🧠
R–F–P Rule:
R → Revenue Deficit = Revenue − Receipt
F → Fiscal Deficit = Borrowings
P → Primary Deficit = Fiscal − Interest
👉 "Revenue first, Fiscal next, Primary last."
Expected question
8.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
Statement II:
Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
Statement III:
Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Correct Answer:
✅ (a) I and II only
Explanation:
Statement I – Correct
Capital receipts either:
Create a liability (example: borrowings), or
Reduce government assets (example: disinvestment).
Hence, this statement is correct.
Statement II – Correct
Borrowings increase government liability.
Disinvestment involves selling government assets.
Both are classified as capital receipts.
Statement III – Incorrect
Interest received on loans does NOT create a liability.
Instead, it is revenue income for the government.
Therefore, Statement III is incorrect.
✅ Final Answer:
(a) I and II only
Memory Trick 🧠
“Capital receipts = Create liability OR sell assets.”
7.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally.
Statement II:
India’s stock market has grown rapidly in recent years and has even overtaken Hong Kong at some point.
Statement III:
There is no regulatory body to warn small investors about the risks of options trading or to take action against unregistered financial advisors.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
✅ Correct Answer:
(a) I and II only
Explanation:
It was a easy question because of the statement 3 and options.
Statement I – Correct
India accounts for a very large share of global equity derivatives trading, especially in index options. Indian exchanges (NSE) dominate global option volumes.
Statement II – Correct
India’s stock market has grown rapidly and has, at times, overtaken Hong Kong in terms of market capitalization.
Statement III – Incorrect
India does have a regulatory authority, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which regulates markets and issues warnings regarding risky trading and unregistered advisors.
Final Answer:
✅ (a) I and II only
Memory Trick 🧠
“India trades big, SEBI guards the gate.”
Some difficult concept
Derivatives
→ Financial contracts whose value depends on something else (example- share prices)
Futures – A Fixed Promise for the Future
Meaning (Simple words):
A future is a promise that you must buy or sell something at a fixed price on a fixed future date.
Real-life Example:
Imagine you are a farmer growing wheat.
Today’s wheat price = ₹2,000 per quintal
You fear the price may fall at harvest time
So you make a futures contract with a trader:
👉 “After 3 months, I will sell you wheat at ₹2,000 per quintal.”
Now:
If the price falls to ₹1,500 → you are protected
If the price rises to ₹2,500 → you still must sell at ₹2,000
🔹 Both parties are legally bound.
Key Point
✔ Futures = Compulsory deal
✔ Both buyer and seller must complete the transaction
🧾 2. Options – A Choice, Not a Compulsion
Meaning (Simple words):
An option gives you the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell something at a fixed price.
Example: Booking a Movie Ticket in Advance
Imagine this situation 👇
You want to watch a movie next Sunday.
Today, the ticket price is ₹200.
You are not sure whether you’ll go or not.
So you pay ₹20 today to block the ticket price.
This ₹20 is the option premium.
Now two situations arise:
✅ Case 1: Movie becomes super popular
Ticket price goes to ₹400.
You use your option:
You buy at ₹200
Save ₹200
Your loss was only ₹20 if you had changed your mind
👉 You made profit
❌ Case 2: Movie turns out boring
Ticket price falls to ₹100.
You simply don’t use the ticket. You lose only the ₹20 you paid earlier.
👉 Loss is limited
🔑 This is exactly how OPTIONS work:
You pay a small premium
You get the right, not obligation
Loss is limited
Profit can be large
Securities are financial instruments that represent ownership, debt, or rights to future income.
In simple words:
👉 Securities are documents or electronic records that have monetary value and can be bought or sold in the market.
📌 Common Types of Securities
Shares (Equity)
– Ownership in a company
– Example: Reliance, TCS shares
Bonds / Debentures
– Money lent to a company or government
– You earn interest
Derivatives
– Contracts whose value depends on shares or indices
– Example: Futures and Options
Mutual Fund Units
– Investment pooled and managed by professionals
6.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
As regards returns from an investment in a company, bondholders are generally at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II:
Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III:
For repayment purpose, bondholders are given priority over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Correct Answer:
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
Statement I – Correct
Bondholders face lower risk than shareholders because their return (interest) is fixed and legally protected.
Statement II – Correct
Bondholders are creditors of the company, while shareholders are owners. Creditors have a prior claim on assets.
Statement III – Correct
In case of liquidation, bondholders are paid before shareholders, which further reduces their investment risk.
Because Statements II and III together explain why bondholders are less risky than shareholders, option (a) is correct.
5.
Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to auction mining leases and composite licences for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Correct Answer:
✅ (c) I and III only
Explanation:
Statement I – Correct
India officially joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023 to secure supply chains of critical minerals such as lithium, cobalt, and rare earth elements.
Statement II – Incorrect
India is NOT resource-rich in all 30 identified critical minerals.
Many critical minerals (like lithium, cobalt, nickel) are scarce domestically and are largely imported.
Statement III – Correct
In 2023, the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 was amended to empower the Central Government to auction mining leases and composite licences for certain critical minerals.
Final Answer:
✅ (c) I and III only
Memory Trick 🧠
“India joined MSP, but doesn’t have all minerals — Centre controls auctions.”
Expected question
4.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from tax.
Statement II:
In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer:
✅ (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation:
Statement I – Incorrect
Income from allied agricultural activities such as poultry farming, dairy farming, fisheries, and wool rearing is NOT treated as agricultural income under the Income-tax Act. Hence, it is taxable.
Statement II – Correct
Rural agricultural land is not treated as a capital asset under Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Therefore, gains from its transfer are not taxable as capital gains.
In simple words
A capital asset is something:
You own, and
You can sell or transfer, and
The profit from its sale is taxable under “Capital Gains”.
Examples of capital assets:
Land (urban)
Buildings
Shares
Gold
Machinery
Why rural agricultural land is NOT a capital asset
Under the Income-tax Act:
Rural agricultural land is excluded from the definition of capital asset.
So, if it is sold, no capital gains tax is charged.
This exemption is given to:
Protect farmers
Encourage agriculture
Prevent tax burden on rural livelihood
Simple Memory Trick 🧠
“Rural land = Relief from tax”
Under Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the term “capital asset” includes property of any kind, but specifically excludes:
👉 Agricultural land in India, provided it is NOT situated:
Within the limits of a municipality or cantonment board having a population of 10,000 or more, OR
Within:
2 km of such municipality (population 10,001–1,00,000)
6 km (population 1,00,001–10,00,000)
8 km (population above 10,00,000)
Therefore:
Rural agricultural land → ❌ Not a capital asset
Urban agricultural land → ✅ Capital asset
Memory Trick:
“Allied ≠ Agricultural (for tax)”
Only land cultivation income is exempt, not poultry or animal rearing.
3.
With reference to the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consider the following:
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II and V
2️⃣ Correct Answer
✅ (d) I, II and V
3️⃣ Detailed Explanation
I. Buying and selling Government bonds — ✅ Correct
RBI earns income through interest on government securities it holds.
It also gains from Open Market Operations (OMO).
This is a core income source of RBI.
II. Buying and selling foreign currency — ✅ Correct
RBI maintains foreign exchange reserves.
Income arises from:
Interest on foreign assets
Exchange rate appreciation
Hence, a valid income source.
III. Pension fund management — ❌ Incorrect
RBI does not operate as a commercial pension fund manager.
Pension management is handled by PFRDA-regulated entities.
RBI only manages its own employee pension, which is not income-generating.
IV. Lending to private companies — ❌ Incorrect
RBI does not lend directly to private companies.
It lends only to:
Banks
Government (Ways and Means Advances)
Hence, not a source of income.
V. Printing and distributing currency notes — ✅ Correct
RBI earns seigniorage income.
Seigniorage = Face value of currency − Cost of printing
Example:
₹100 note printed at ₹3 → ₹97 is RBI’s income.
This is a recognized and important source of RBI income.
2.
Consider the following statements:
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Correct Answer
✅ (b) II only
Explanation
Let us examine each statement carefully:
Statement I: The Reserve Bank of India mandates BRSR submission — ❌ Incorrect
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does not mandate BRSR.
Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) is mandated by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India).
It is applicable to the top 1000 listed companies (by market capitalisation).
Hence, the statement is factually incorrect.
Statement II: BRSR disclosures are largely non-financial — ✅ Correct
BRSR focuses on Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG) parameters.
It includes disclosures on:
Environmental impact
Social responsibility
Governance practices
These are non-financial disclosures, although some quantitative data may be included.
✅ Therefore, Statement II is correct.
Memory Trick
🧠 “SEBI sees Sustainability, RBI sees Banks.”
SEBI → BRSR → Non-financial disclosures ✅
RBI → Banking regulation only ❌
1. With reference to investments, consider the following:
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
2️⃣ Correct Answer
(b) Only two
3️⃣ Detailed Explanation (Exam-Oriented)
Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are investment vehicles other than traditional investment avenues like stocks and bonds. In India, AIFs are regulated by SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012.
Let us examine each option:
I. Bonds ❌
Bonds are traditional financial instruments representing debt.
They are not classified as Alternative Investment Funds.
II. Hedge Funds ✅
Hedge Funds are Category III AIFs under SEBI regulations.
They use complex strategies like leverage and derivatives.
👉 Hence, they are Alternative Investment Funds.
III. Stocks ❌
Stocks (equity shares) are traditional investments traded in stock markets.
They do not fall under AIFs.
IV. Venture Capital ✅
Venture Capital Funds are Category I AIFs, investing in startups and early-stage companies.
✅ Therefore, only Hedge Funds and Venture Capital qualify as Alternative Investment Funds.
4️⃣ Memory Trick (Easy & Logical)
🧠 “AIF = ALTERNATIVE = Not Regular Market”
Bonds & Stocks → Regular Market ❌
Hedge Funds & Venture Capital → Alternative Route ✅
👉 Think: “Hedge + Venture = Alternative Adventure” 🚀
Government scheme based PYQ is extremely helpful to understand the important dimension of government schemes.
1. Ministry
2. Year
3. Objective and impact announced by government
4. First priority to schemes announced in budgets.
5. Schemes which completed 5 year , 10 years.
2.
Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Correct Answer:
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
This question is an example why the schemes announced in budgets are the most important.
Statement I — Correct ✅
PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana targets installation of rooftop solar systems in one crore households in the residential sector.
The objective is to enable households to generate their own electricity and receive free electricity up to a specified limit.
Statement II — Correct ✅
The scheme is implemented under the aegis of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
MNRE provides for training at the grassroots level covering:
Installation
Operation
Maintenance
Repair of rooftop solar systems
This is part of strengthening local capacity and service delivery.
Statement III — Correct ✅
A dedicated Capacity Building component of the scheme aims to:
Create more than three lakh skilled manpower
Through fresh skilling and up-skilling
This supports long-term sustainability of the rooftop solar ecosystem.
Final Logic:
All three statements accurately reflect the objectives and components of PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana.
👉 Answer: (d) I, II and III
Memory Trick:
“Surya Ghar = 1 crore roofs + MNRE training + 3 lakh skilled manpower.”
1.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor, as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Correct Answer:
(c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Statement I — Correct ✅
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) focuses on indigenous bovine breeds, which are largely owned by:
Small and marginal farmers
Landless labourers
Improving productivity and genetic quality of these animals directly:
Enhances milk yield
Increases rural income
Supports livelihood security
Hence, the mission contributes to the upliftment of the rural poor.
Statement II — Correct ✅
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched to:
Develop and conserve indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds
Use a scientific and holistic approach, including:
Genetic improvement
Breed conservation
Establishment of Gokul Grams
Therefore, Statement II is correct.
Final Logic:
Statement I → Correct
Statement II → Correct
👉 Answer: (c) Both I and II
Memory Trick:
“Gokul = Indigenous cows + Rural livelihoods.”
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